The Sadducees had a very different Bible from the Pharisees…they only believed that the first 5 books of Moses were God’s word. Yet you never see Jesus trying to convince them otherwise.
When Jesus corrected their mistaken view on the resurrection He did not do so with what would be clear texts from Scripture that they did not believe to be God’s word. Instead, He quoted from the books that they held to be Scripture (Mat 22:31-32)
Does this example have a place in the Bible version debates?
Does it have a place in the debates over the apocrypha?